1. What are the types of requirements ?
a) Availability
b) Reliability
c) Usability
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned traits are beneficial for an effective product to be developed.
2. Select the developer-specific requirement ?
a) Portability
b) Maintainability
c) Availability
d) Both Portability and Maintainability
Answer: d
Explanation: Availability is user specific
requirement.
3. Which one of the following is not a step of requirement engineering?
a) elicitation
b) design
c) analysis
d) documentation
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirement Elicitation, Requirement Analysis, Requirement Documentation and Requirement Review are the four crucial process steps of requirement engineering.Design is in itself a different phase of Software Engineering.
4. FAST stands for
a) Functional
Application Specification Technique
b) Fast Application Specification Technique
c) Facilitated Application Specification Technique
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
5. QFD stands for
a) quality function design
b) quality function development
c) quality function deployment
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
6. A Use-case actor is always a person having a role that different people may play.
a) True
b)
False
Answer: b
Explanation: Use-case Actor is anything that needs to interact with the system, be it a person or another (external) system.
7. The user system requirements are the parts of which document ?
a) SDD
b) SRS
c) DDD
d) SRD
Answer: b
Explanation: Software requirements specification (SRS), is a complete description of the behaviour of a system to be developed and may include a set of use cases that describe interactions the users
will have with the software.
8. A stakeholder is anyone who will purchase the completed software system under development.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Stakeholders are anyone who has an interest in the project. Project stakeholders are individuals and organizations that are actively involved in the project, or whose interests may be affected as a result of project execution or project completion.
9. Conflicting requirements are
common in Requirement Engineering, with each client proposing his or her version is the right one.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: This situation is seen in every field of work as each professional has his/her way of looking onto things & would argue to get his/her point approved.
10. Which is one of the most important stakeholder from the following ?
a) Entry level personnel
b) Middle level stakeholder
c) Managers
d)
Users of the software
Answer: d
Explanation: Users are always the most important stakeholders.After all, without users or customers, what’s the point of being in business?.
11. Which one of the following is a functional requirement ?
a) Maintainability
b) Portability
c) Robustness
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All are non-functional requirements representing quality of the system. Functional requirements describe what the
software has to do.
12. Which one of the following is a requirement that fits in a developer’s module ?
a) Availability
b) Testability
c) Usability
d) Flexibility
Answer: b
Explanation: A developer needs to test his product before launching it into the market.
13. “Consider a system where, a heat sensor detects an intrusion and alerts the security company.” What kind of a requirement the system is providing ?
a)
Functional
b) Non-Functional
c) Known Requirement
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Functional requirements describe what the software has to do.
14. Which of the following statements explains portability in non-functional requirements?
a) It is a degree to which software running on one platform can easily be converted to run on another platform
b) It cannot be enhanced by using languages, OS’ and tools that are universally
available and standardized
c) The ability of the system to behave consistently in a user-acceptable manner when operating within the environment for which the system was intended
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Option c is termed as reliability and option e refers to efficiency.
15. Functional requirements capture the intended behavior of the system.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The behavior of functional
requirements may be expressed as services, tasks or functions the system is required to perform.
16. Choose the incorrect statement with respect to Non-Functional Requirement(NFR).
a) Product-oriented Approach – Focus on system (or software) quality
b) Process-oriented Approach – Focus on how NFRs can be used in the design process
c) Quantitative Approach – Find measurable scales for the functionality attributes
d) Qualitative Approach – Study various
relationships between quality goals
Answer: c
Explanation: Quantitative Approaches in NFRs are used to find measurable scales for the quality attributes like efficiency, flexibility, integrity, usability etc.
17. How many classification schemes have been developed for NFRs ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: d
Explanation: Software Quality Tree [Boehm 1976], Roman [IEEE Computer 1985], Process-Product-External considerations
[Sommerville 1992], Mc Call’s NFR list and Dimensions of Quality–Components of FURPS+ are the five classification schemes for NFRs.
18. According to components of FURPS+, which of the following does not belong to S ?
a) Testability
b) Speed Efficiency
c) Serviceability
d) Installability
Answer: b
Explanation: Speed Efficiency belong to Performance (P) in FURPS+ .
19. Does software wear & tear by decomposition ?
a)
Yes
b) No
Answer: b
Explanation: Unlike hardware, software is reliable.
20. What are the four dimensions of Dependability ?
a) Usability, Reliability, Security, Flexibility
b) Availability, Reliability, Maintainability, Security
c) Availability, Reliability, Security, Safety
d) Security, Safety, Testability, Usability
Answer: c
Explanation: All the traits of option c sync with dependability.
21. What is the first step of
requirement elicitation ?
a) Identifying Stakeholder
b) Listing out Requirements
c) Requirements Gathering
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Stakeholders are the one who will invest in and use the product, so its essential to chalk out stakeholders first.
22. Starting from least to most important, choose the order of stakeholder.
i. Managers
ii. Entry level Personnel
iii.
Users
iv. Middle level stakeholder
a) i, ii, iv, iii
b) i, ii, iii, iv
c) ii, iv, i, iii
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Users are your customers, they will be using your product, thus making them most important of all.
23. Arrange the tasks involved in requirements elicitation in an appropriate manner.
i. Consolidation
ii. Prioritization
iii.
Requirements Gathering
iv. Evaluation
a) iii, i, ii, iv
b) iii, iv, ii, i
c) iii, ii, iv, i
d) ii, iii, iv, i
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements gathering captures viewpoint from different users followed by evaluation of those view points.Now comes the task of checking the relative importance of the requirements and finally to consolidate or bind together the information collected.
24. What are the types of requirement in
Quality Function Deployment(QFD) ?
a) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
b) User, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) Normal, Expected, Exciting
Answer: d
Explanation: According to QFD, Normal, Expected and Exciting requirements maximizes customer satisfaction from the Software Engineering Process.
25. What kind of approach was introduced for elicitation and modelling to give a functional view of the system ?
a) Object Oriented Design (by
Booch)
b) Use Cases (by Jacobson)
c) Fusion (by Coleman)
d) Object Modeling Technique (by Rumbaugh)
Answer: b
Explanation: Use Case captures who does what with the system, for what purpose, without dealing with system internals.
26. What are the kinds of actors used in OOSE ?
a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Ternary
d) Both Primary and Secondary
Answer: d
Explanation: A primary actor is one having a goal requiring the assistance of the
system whereas, a secondary actor is one from which system needs assistance.There is no such thing as ternary actor in Software Engineering.
27. Why is Requirements Elicitation a difficult task ?
a) Problem of scope
b) Problem of understanding
c) Problem of volatility
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: Users specify unnecessary technical detail that may confuse, rather than clarify overall system objectives.Also, the customers/users are
not completely sure of what is needed, have a poor understanding of the capabilities and limitations of their computing environment and they do not understand that the requirements change over time.
28. What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in 1970s is used for managing requirement elicitation ?
a) JAD
b) Traceability
c) FAST
d) Both JAD and Traceability
Answer: d
Explanation: Joint application design (JAD) is a process used to collect
business requirements while developing new information systems for a company. Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a requirement and providing bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements.
29. Requirements elicitation is a cyclic process
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability provides bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements.
30. How
many Scenarios are there in elicitation activities ?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: d
Explanation: As-is Scenario, Visionary Scenario, Evaluation Scenario and Training Scenario are the four scenarios in requirement elicitation activities.
31. Which of the following elicitation techniques is a viewpoint based method?
a) FODA
b) QFD
c) CORE
d) IBIS
Answer: c
Explanation: Controlled Requirements Expression(CORE)
says that any system can be viewed from a number of view points and that a complete picture of system requirements can only emerge by putting together the various viewpoints.
32. ___________ and ____________ are the two view points discussed in Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE).
a) Functional, Non-Functional
b) User, Developer
c) Known, Unknown
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The CORE sessions includes the discussion of
functional and non-functional requirements.
33. What is the major drawback of CORE ?
a) Requirements are comprehensive
b) NFRs are not given enough importance
c) Role of analyst is passive
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In CORE the requirement specification are put together by all users, customers and analysts, so a passive analyst will not get the requirements properly.
34. Choose a framework that corresponds to Issue
Based Information System (IBIS).
a) Idea -> Question -> Argument
b) Question -> Idea -> Argument
c) Issue -> Position -> Justification
d) Both Question -> Idea -> Argument and Issue -> Position -> Justification
Answer: d
Explanation: IBIS is a simple and non-intrusive method that provides a framework for resolving issues and gathering requirements.
35. How is CORE different from IBIS ?
a) Iterative in
nature
b) Redundancies are removed
c) It is simple and an easier method to use
d) Consistency problems are addressed in CORE
Answer: d
Explanation: Preliminary data collection is done in CORE to get some broad level data on each view point to structure the view point and to check consistency from within and outside the viewpoints.
36. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques removes the poor understanding of application domain and lack of common
terminology between the users and the analysts ?
a) FODA
b) CORE
c) IBIS
d) Prototyping
Answer: a
Explanation: Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) is defined as the process of identifying, collecting, organizing and representing relevant information in a domain .
37. How many steps are involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA) ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
Answer: b
Explanation: Context Analysis,
Domain Modeling and Architecture Modeling are the three steps involved in Feature Oriented Domain Analysis (FODA).
38. IBIS is a more structured approach than CORE.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: IBIS is a more structured approach as it captures information which is consistent and important.On the other hand CORE gives importance to every view point even if it is obsolete.
39. Which one of the following is not an actor in JAD sessions
?
a) User
b) Tester
c) Scribe
d) Sponsor
Answer: b
Explanation: A Tester’s role is seen in after coding phase rather than in elicitation phase.
40. What of the following is not an output of a JAD session ?
a) Context Diagrams
b) DFDs
c) ER model
d) UML diagrams
Answer: d
Explanation: Unified Modeling Language (UML) diagrams are constructed during the design phase of the SDLC.
41. How is brainstorming
different from JAD ? Brainstorming sessions
a) last for about 2-3 hours
b) last for about 2-3 days
c) cover the technology used for the development
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Brainstorming is a group or individual creativity technique by which efforts are made to find a conclusion for a specific problem by gathering a list of ideas spontaneously contributed by its member(s).The idea is to quickly reach to an approved solution ASAP.
42.
How is throwaway prototype different from evolutionary prototype ?
a) It involves successive steps
b) It involves just one task
c) The prototype is built with the idea that it will eventually be converted into final system
d) It has a shorter development time
Answer: b
Explanation: Except option b all other options represent the characteristics of an evolutionary prototype.
43. Keeping the requirements of QFD in mind which of the following is not an
example of an Expected Requirement ?
a) Ease of software installation
b) Overall operational correctness and reliability
c) Specific system functions
d) Quality graphical display
Answer: c
Explanation: Expected requirements are so fundamental that a customer does not explicitly state them.System functions comes under the category of Normal requirements in QFD which is compulsory to be defined,hence is not an expected requirement.
44. QFD works best
if it has management commitment.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: QFD involves heavy investment in initial stages, thus bounding the management to provide appropriate funding for the development process .
45. Which of the following Requirement Elicitation Techniques is applicable to messy, changing and ill-defined problem situations ?
a) Quality Function Deployment (QFD)
b) Prototyping
c) Soft Systems Methodology (SSM)
d)
Controlled Requirements Expression (CORE)
Answer: c
Explanation: Soft systems methodology (SSM) is a systemic approach for tackling real-world problematic situations.It is a common misunderstanding that SSM is a methodology for dealing solely with ‘soft problems’ (problems which involve psychological, social, and cultural elements). SSM does not differentiate between ‘soft’ and ‘hard’ problems, it merely provides a different way of dealing with situations perceived as problematic.
46.
To ensure that a given root definition is rigorous and comprehensive, The Lancaster team proposed several criteria that are summarized in the mnemonic CATWOE in Soft Systems Methodology (SSM).Which of the following alphabet is representing an entirely different meaning to SSM ?
a) C – Customer
b) A – Actor
c) T – Transformation
d) E – ER Model
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘E’ in CATWOE stands for Environmental constraints.
47. Choose the disadvantage of
using SSM as an elicitation technique.
a) It incorporates human element into design
b) SSM is in its infant stage
c) SSM is suitable for new systems
d) Standard methodologies like Role Exploration, Issue Resolution and Reorganization support SSM
Answer: b
Explanation: SSM is still in its infancy.It is evolving and its industrial usage is low.
48. How many phases are there in Brainstorming ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) All of
the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Preparation, Execution and Follow up are the three phases to be achieved for a successful brainstorming session.
49. Who controls the FAST (Facilitated Application Specification Techniques) meeting ?
a) System Analyst
b) Scribe
c) Facilitator
d) Manager
Answer: c
Explanation: A Facilitator (a customer/developer/an outsider) controls the FAST meeting.His role is to ensure that the meeting is productive.
50. Arrange the steps in order to represent the conducting of Wideband Delphi Technique.
i. Conduct a group discussion
ii. Conduct another group discussion
iii. Present experts with a problem
iv. Collect expert opinion anonymously
v. Iterate until consensus is reached
vi. Feedback a summary of result to each expert
a) i, iii, ii, iv, v, vi
b)
iii, i, ii, iv, v, vi
c) i, ii, iii, iv, vi, v
d) iii, i, iv, vi, ii, v
Answer: d
Explanation: The sequence represents the working steps of a Wideband Delphi technique .
51. Which of the following is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Use Cases
b) Entity Relationship Diagram
c) State Transition Diagram
d) Activity Diagram
Answer: d
Explanation: Activity Diagram comes under the design phase of SDLC.
52.
How many feasibility studies is conducted in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Economic feasibility (cost/benefit analysis), Technical feasibility (hardware/software/people, etc.) and Legal feasibility studies are done in Requirement Analysis.
53. How many phases are there in Requirement Analysis ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
Answer: c
Explanation:
Problem Recognition, Evaluation and Synthesis (focus is on what not how), Modeling, Specification and Review are the five phases.
54. Traceability is not considered in Requirement Analysis.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements traceability is concerned with documenting the life of a requirement and providing bi-directional traceability between various associated requirements, hence requirements must be traceable.
55.
Requirements analysis is critical to the success of a development project.
a) True
b) False
c) Depends upon the size of project
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements must be actionable, measurable, testable, related to identified business needs or opportunities, and defined to a level of detail sufficient for system design.
56. _________ and _________ are the two issues of Requirement Analysis.
a) Performance,
Design
b) Stakeholder, Developer
c) Functional, Non-Functional
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Option a and c are the types of requirements and not the issues of requirement analysis..
57. The requirements that result from requirements analysis are typically expressed from one of three perspectives or views. WhaT is that perspective or view ?
a) Developer
b) User
c) Non-Functional
d) Physical
Answer: d
Explanation: The perspectives or views have been described as the Operational, Functional, and Physical views.All three are necessary and must be coordinated to fully understand the customers’ needs and objectives.
58. Requirements Analysis is an Iterative Process.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements analysis is conducted iteratively with functional analysis to optimize performance requirements for identified functions, and to verify that
synthesized solutions can satisfy customer requirements.
59. Coad and Yourdon suggested _______ selection characteristics that should be used as an analyst considers each potential object for inclusion in the requirement analysis model.
a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Six
Answer: d
Explanation: Retained information, Needed services, Multiple attributes, Common attributes, Common operations and Essential requirements are the six criterion mentioned by
Coad and Yourdon.
60. Requirements should specify ‘what’ but not ‘how’.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: ‘What’ refers to a system’s purpose, while ‘How’ refers to a system’s structure and behavior.
61. Which of the following property does not correspond to a good Software Requirements Specification (SRS) ?
a) Verifiable
b) Ambiguous
c) Complete
d) Traceable
Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS should be
unambiguous in nature which means each sentence in SRS should have a unique interpretation.
62. Which of the following property of SRS is depicted by the statement : “Conformity to a standard is maintained” ?
a) Correct
b) Complete
c) Consistent
d) Modifiable
Answer: b
Explanation: The SRS is complete full labeling and referencing of all figures, tables etc. and definition of all terms and units of measure is defined.
63. The SRS is
said to be consistent if and only if
a) its structure and style are such that any changes to the requirements can be made easily while retaining the style and structure
b) every requirement stated therein is one that the software shall meet
c) every requirement stated therein is verifiable
d) no subset of individual requirements described in it conflict with each other
Answer: d
Explanation: Real world object may conflict with each other for example one
requirement says that all lights should be red while the other states that all lights should green.
64. Which of the following statements about SRS is/are true ?
i. SRS is written by customer
ii. SRS is written by a developer
iii. SRS serves as a contract between customer and developer
a) Only i is true
b) Both ii and iii are true
c) All are true
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The SRS acts as a communication media between the Customer, Analyst, system developers, maintainers etc. Thus it is a contract between Purchaser and Supplier. It is essentially written by a developer on the basis of customer’ need but in some cases it may be written by a customer as well.
65. The SRS document is also known as _____________ specification.
a) black-box
b) white-box
c) grey-box
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The system is considered as a black box whose internal details are not known that is, only its visible external (input/output) behavior is documented.
66. Which of the following is included in SRS ?
a) Cost
b) Design Constraints
c) Staffing
d) Delivery Schedule
Answer: b
Explanation: Design constraints include standards to be incorporated in the software, implementation language, resource limits, operating environment etc.
67.
Which of the following is not included in SRS ?
a) Performance
b) Functionality
c) Design solutions
d) External Interfaces
Answer: c
Explanation: The SRS document concentrates on:”what needs to be done” and carefully avoids the solution (“how to do”) aspects.
68. Arrange the given sequence to form a SRS Prototype outline as per IEEE SRS Standard.
i. General description
ii. Introduction
iii. Index
iv. Appendices
v. Specific Requirements
a) iii, i, ii,v, iv
b) iii, ii, i, v, iv
c) ii, i, v, iv, iii
d) iii, i, ii
Answer: c
Explanation: The given sequence correctly resemble a standard SRS prototype as per IEEE.
69. Consider the following Statement: “The output of a program shall be given within 10 secs of event X 10% of the time.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here
?
a) Consistent
b) Verifiable
c) Non-verifiable
d) Correct
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable.Here the given condition can be verified during testing phase.
70. Consider the following Statement: “The data set will contain an end of file character.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-verifiable
c) Correct
d)
Ambiguous
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is unambiguous if and only if, every requirement stated therein has only one unique interpretation. The given statement does not answer the question: “which data set will have an end of file character ?”.
71. Which two requirements are given priority during Requirement Management of a product ?
a) User and Developer
b) Functional and Non-functional
c) Enduring and Volatile
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Enduring requirements are core requirements & are related to main activity of the organization while volatile requirements are likely to change during software development life cycle or after delivery of the product.
72. Considering the example of issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. in a library management.What type of management requirement is being depicted here?
a) Enduring
b) Volatile
c) Both Enduring & Volatile
d) All of the
mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: For library management system issue/return of a book, cataloging etc. are core activities and are stable for any system.
73. Why is Requirements Management Important ? It is due to the changes
a) to the environment
b) in technology
c) in customer’s expectations
d) in all of the mentioned.
Answer: d
Explanation: Systems continue to be built as the advancement of new products being launched in the market and so
does the market changes, the technology and in turn customer’s expectation.
74. Requirements Management is a prerequisite for Quality-Oriented Development.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Quality makes no sense without reference to requirements, which means quality-oriented development is requirements-driven development, thus requirements management is a prerequisite for quality-oriented development.
75. Requirements traceability is
one of the most important part requirement management. It may also be referred to as the heart of requirement management.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: Requirements traceability refers to the ability to describe and follow the life of a requirement in both forwards and backwards direction. Requirements can be traced from its origins, through its development and specification, to its subsequent deployment and use, and through periods of ongoing refinement and
iteration in any of these phases.
76. Requirements Management has a high initial start-up cost but does not need ongoing funding throughout a project.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Requirements Management needs continued funding throughout a project.Project funding is often limited at the onset of a project, restricted to those aspects of the project which are tangible and visible, and subsequently allocated in a phase-by-phase manner.
77.
Which of the following is not a Requirement Management workbench tool ?
a) RTM
b) DOORS
c) Rational Suite
d) RDD 100
Answer: c
Explanation: Rational Suite is an environment tool for requirement management.
78. Which of the following is a requirement management activity ?
a) Investigation
b) Design
c) Construction and Test
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the options are the activities of requirement
management.
79. What functionality of Requirement Management Tool (RMT) is depicted by the statement: “the tool should be able to automatically detect relations between artifacts. For example information retrieval techniques, monitoring of change history, naming schemas or model transformations.”
a) Automatic Link Detection
b) Documentation Support
c) Graphical Representation
d) Automatic Link Creation and Change
Answer: a
Explanation: DOORS is one
such tool that supports Automatic Link Detection.
80. According to a statistical report: “over 30% of all software projects are cancelled before completion and over 70% of the remainder fail to deliver expected features”. What must be the reason for such a situation ?
a) Poor change management
b) Poor requirements management
c) Poor quality control
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Fundamental to the problem mentioned in the statistical
report is poor requirements management. Option a and c are its sub parts.
81. The Unified Modeling Language (UML) has become an effective standard for software modelling.How many different notations does it have ?
a) Three
b) Four
c) Six
d) Nine
Answer: d
Explanation: The different notations of UML includes the nine UML diagrams namely class, object, sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart, component, deployment and use case diagrams.
82.
Which model in system modelling depicts the dynamic behaviour of the system ?
a) Context Model
b) Behavioral Model
c) Data Model
d) Object Model
Answer: b
Explanation: Behavioral models are used to describe the dynamic behavior of an executing system. This can be modeled from the perspective of the data processed by the system or by the events that stimulate responses from a system.
83. Which model in system modelling depicts the static nature of
the system ?
a) Behavioral Model
b) Context Model
c) Data Model
d) Structural Model
Answer: d
Explanation: Structural models show the organization and architecture of a system. These are used to define the static structure of classes in a system and their associations.
84. Which perspective in system modelling shows the system or data architecture.
a) Structural perspective
b) Behavioral perspective
c) External perspective
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Structural perspective is used to define the static structure of classes in a system and their associations.
85. Choose the correct statement on how NFRs integrates with Rational Unified Process ?
a) System responds within 4 seconds on average to local user requests and changes in the environment
b) System responds within 4 seconds on average to remote user requests and changes in the environment
c) All of
the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: System response to a local user is 2 seconds on average.
86. Activity diagrams are used to model the processing of data.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The statement mentioned is true and each activity represents one process step.
87. Model-driven engineering is just a theoretical concept. It cannot be converted into a working/executable code.
a)
True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Model-driven engineering is an approach to software development in which a system is represented as a set of models that can be automatically transformed to executable code.
88. The UML supports event-based modeling using ____________ diagrams.
a) Deployment
b) Collaboration
c) State chart
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: State diagrams show system states and events that cause
transitions from one state to another.
89. Consider the following Statement: “The product should have a good human interface.”What characteristic of SRS is being depicted here ?
a) Consistent
b) Non-Verifiable
c) Correct
d) Ambiguous
Answer: b
Explanation: An SRS is verifiable, if and only if, every requirement stated therein is verifiable. The statement can only be answered on completion of the software and customer evaluation but still human
interface will vary from person to person.
90. Narrative essay is one of the best types of specification document ?
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Narrative essay is one of the worst types of specification document as it is difficult to change, difficult to be precise, has scope for contradictions, etc.
91. Which of the following diagram is not supported by UML considering Data-driven modeling ?
a) Activity
b) Data
Flow Diagram (DFD)
c) State Chart
d) Component
Answer: b
Explanation: DFDs focus on system functions and do not recognize system objects.
92. _________________ allows us to infer that different members of classes have some common characteristics.
a) Realization
b) Aggregation
c) Generalization
d) dependency
Answer: c
Explanation: Generalization is an everyday technique that we use to manage complexity.This means that common
information will be maintained in one place only.
93. One creates Behavioral models of a system when you are discussing and designing the system architecture.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: Structural models of software display the organization of a system in terms of the components that make up that system and their relationships.
94. ______________ & ______________ diagrams of UML represent Interaction modeling.
a)
Use Case, Sequence
b) Class, Object
c) Activity, State Chart
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Use case modeling is mostly used to model interactions between a system and external actors.Sequence diagrams are used to model interactions between system components, although external agents may also be included.
95. Which level of Entity Relationship Diagram (ERD) models all entities and relationships ?
a) Level 1
b) Level 2
c)
Level 3
d) Level 4
Answer: b
Explanation: Level 1 ERD models all data objects (entities) and their “connections” to one another while Level 3 ERD models all entities, relationships, and the attributes that provide further depth. Thus option b is correct.
96. ___________ classes are used to create the interface that the user sees and interacts with as the software is used.
a) Controller
b) Entity
c) Boundary
d) Business
Answer: c
Explanation: The answer is self-explanatory.
97. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the Class-responsibility-collaborator (CRC) modeling ?
a) All use-case scenarios (and corresponding use-case diagrams) are organized into categories in CRC modelling
b) The review leader reads the use-case deliberately
c) Only developers in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: All participants in the review (of the CRC model) are given a subset of the CRC model index cards.
98. A data object can encapsulates processes and operation as well.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: A data object encapsulates data only. There is no reference within a data object to operations that act on the data.